cubanbob Posted: Sunday, October 19, 2003
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This article is utter crap.
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charming. it's great that there are reasonable people willing to bring up the level of debate in this world.
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There has always been qualifiers on who can vote and rightfully so.
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right...hence the comments about the requirements of male landowners, then all males, then women, then the 26th amendment, etc.
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Does Joe advocate granting crimminals universal sufferage?
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joe? who are you talking about? me? draginol? the fictional joe rich? if me, then no. if you fail to uphold your responsibilities as a citizen you should definitely lose your rights. whether to reinstate voting rights after prison is a whole other subject. i also did not mention whether i think 5-year olds should be able to vote. the answer there is "no".
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As for the taxpayer versus tax consumer issue can someone point out to me the marxist clauses in the constitution?
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?
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A person who pays little or no taxes has proportionaly far greater vote than someone who is a maximum rate taxpayer.
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huh? one little taxpayer vote = 1 vote. one rich taxpayer = 1 vote. are you saying that there are more no/little tax paying voters? yes, that is correct.
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Votes ar not weighted by the amount of taxes someone pays. Correct me if I'm wrong but I suspect the neo-comm's posting here either pay very little if any in income taxes.
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again, one vote = one vote no matter who places it, yes. if you mean "neo-communists", i have no idea how much they make or even who are the "neo-communists" here.
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Far from universal suffrage what his country needs is some restrictions in suffrage.
Those restrictions should be a ban on all convicted criminals until full completion of sentence and and payment of fines and restitutions.
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sounds reasonable. according to an article i just googled up now only 3 states allow prisoners to unrestricted votes. (Massachusetts, Maine, and Vermont).
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A ban on non english speakers ( except for Puerto Ricans on the island of Puerto Rico). If you cannot speak or read in english you cannot possibly be sufficently informed enough to make an informed considered vote.
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there are many foreign language newspapers and programs in america. i have no idea why you think "you cannot possibly be sufficiently informed". my parents read a chinese newspaper every week that seems as reasonably informative as most us newspapers, every saturday night they watch some chinese news show. (they both speak english as a second language but obviously understand chinese much better) how do you cover those who can speak and comprehend spoken english but are not so great at reading and writing? probably a lot of english speaking voters don't read papers or in-depth articles, how do you know they are sufficiently informed?
besides, being sufficiently informed is hardly a qualification to vote. at least a fraction of 1% of those voting in the 2000 election could not describe the difference between the democrats and republicans, and they were hardly concentrated among the lower income classes, and in fact seemed almost proud of their lack of knowledge of politics. there are some voters who just vote all republicans or all democrats. should all voters be subject to a basic knowledge test? "name the branches of the government". "name at least two candidates running". "who is the president?" "briefly describe the earned income credit and the reason you oppose or support it".
how will the language ban be enforced? a written test in person for everyone who registers?
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Same for literacy,if you cannot read you cannot possibly be informed enough to know what your voting for let alone be able to properly cast a vote.
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they can still be informed: c-span, friends, neighbors, radio, news programs, etc. not as good as print articles, but there are probably a lot of literate voters who don't read papers or in-depth articles. and again, how is the testing being done? in person while registering? "please diagram the following sentence". "conjegate the following verbs". "identify the gerund in the following sentence: 'cripes, my whizzing myself in fear over that last question almost happened'". (bonus points to the first who answers the question right)
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Taxes: either institute a head tax (everyone pays an equal share) in which case the issue is muted. Why not? If your a home owner you pay a property tax based on property values not on your ability to pay. If we accept that premise for property taxes why not for the federal general fund?
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theoretically, if you are a property owner, you have a decent job, and are budgeting to account for the fact you have to pay taxes, and are not poor. plus, since you own property you are likely not paying rent to someone else? (i am making some assumptions here as to why)
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The theory of our government is that everyone benefits equally why shouldn't everyone pay equally?
As long as we accept a discriminatory income tax scheme - a progressive tax scheme,we should restrict non-taxpayers or net tax consumers voting rights.
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income tax is progressive. but there are some articles that claim that when regressive social security, fica, state, and local taxes are factored in,
"some analysts say total taxes as a percentage of income are about the same for all income levels". (second to last sentence in article) i tried to find the article i read where it listed it out as the the tax levels being something like ?16%, ?17%, and ?19% but couldn't find it.
this
link has a guy named jason who listed some numbers and examples. not sure if they're right since i couldn't find the article.
anyway: why is the progressive income tax attacked but regressive taxes almost never mentioned? heck, make a pitch that the progressive income tax gets fixed along with the regressive taxes and you might make headway among most americans. oh, and don't make your spokesman some billionaire who will save millions of dollars under a flat tax. just seems a little convenient to most americans when that happens.
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Why should they be more equal than others? Restrict their votes to electing senators and the president but not for the house of representatives (where all spending matters originate) and the same at the state level, govenor and state senators but not state house representatives.
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the house of representatives does more than allocate spending. to mix up the example i gave above, do you think in times of war only soldiers should be allowed to vote? they have to "pay" the price of war. and the possiblity of any of the top 10% being a soldier is probably less than any other group, but they will probably have many foreign investments to protect. so should the top 10% votes be taken away since they are getting more property protection at the cost of soldiers' lives who are not part of the top 10%?
man that took a long time to respond to!
Reply By: Draginol Posted: Sunday, October 19, 2003
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With campaign finance "reform" (somethign the left really loves) teh ability of the top 10% to influence elections is reduced.
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so their money, their contacts, and their greater ability to advertise and advocate their positions are not influential in the political process?
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I agree with you in terms of dealing with war and other non-tax issues. But I do think we need to do soemthing so that the bottom 90% of the tax base can't "vote in" a free party for themselves that the top 10% are forced to pay for.
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why do we trust that 95% of the population will not vote in wars to get a free 51st state to play in that soldiers are forced to "pay" for in blood?
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The problem is, 75% of the budget is spent either on entitlements or interest on the debt for paying for those entitlements. Only 15% of the budget goes to defense with the last 10% going for pensions (fed employees, veterans, etc.), interstate highways, and discretionary spending.
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i am pretty sure social security tends to be a regressive tax. debt interest can hardly be blamed on just free stuff for the bottom 90%. i am pretty sure the outcry against tax cuts was pretty low among the top 10% as well. am i blaming the top 10% for causing debt with tax cuts? no, just not 0% their fault.
Reply By: Draginol Posted: Sunday, October 19, 2003
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I know: How about those who serve (and their adult dependents) can vote along with those who file federal tax payments.
And everyone can still vote for state since everyone pays state taxes in most states (sales tax).
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what about those who served, but retired before the war? if they have a jobless 18 year old kid can s/he vote?
what about those who were taxpayers but then crippled/sickened and unable to work? (cancer, parapalegic, etc)
priests: do they get a vote?
"Religious priests take a vow of poverty and are supported by their religious order. Any personal earnings are given to the order. Their vow of poverty is recognized by the Internal Revenue Service, which exempts them from paying Federal income tax."
source
whew i'm tired! hopefully everything will still look semi coherent when i hit submit...