Time to debunk some of the stupidity that's crept in.
You mean sir - that you've never taken a photograph of any item you own?
Because the physical design for virtually anything is copyrighted no - that's why I brought up moviemaking - it's a genuine problem there - {G}. That includes your couch, your furniture, your clothing and that slinky thing your girlfriend only wears when she want's something. So better not photograph anything.
Physical designs are covered by patent laws, not copyright. The plans to such items might be copyrightable, but not the items themselves. What might be covered by copyright is any artistic rendering on the item (a specific, distinctive color pattern or something).
"the design of a useful article [...] shall be considered a pictorial, graphic, or sculptural work only if, and only to the extent that, such design incorporates pictorial, graphic, or sculptural features that can be identified separately from, and are capable of existing independently of, the utilitarian aspects of the article."
http://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/html/uscode17/usc_sec_17_00000102----000-notes.html
You mean sir - that you've never taken a photograph of any item you own?
Would taking a photograph be considered creating a copy?
In a wide variety of cases, yes - taking a photo can indeed infringe. Taking a picture of someone wearing a T-shirt with a copyrighted design printed on it can be infringing. So can taking a picture of a painting, or a TV broadcast, or in many countries, taking pictures of archetecture or sculpture on public display. Fair use rulings can go pretty much any way you could imagine, but it's best to assume anything you can photograph can be at least a potential infringement.
More to the point, using the exact same reasoning as is being used for the WoW/Blizzard case - they *could* stick a license agreement on the sale of the couch saying you don't own the couch - the design is just as copyrighted as the design of a software program, and if you don't recognize any proteection for consumers in being bound by such a hidden agreement, then you would be just as bound by it.
Would a court support such an interpretation?
Assuming that the case we're discussing is a valid precedent, they would have to either -
Assuming they put the same effort into informing the consumer, namely a warning of such a license before purchase and a full-text agreement the consumer MUST agree to before ass hits cushion, probably yes.
Unfortunately for the rest of your point here, this case at present can be a useful legal reference, but not binding precident. District-level cases are non-binding even on the same district. If one side or the other were to appeal this decision, the Circuit decision would create precident.
An original $100,000 statue is copyrighted intellectual property, and a photo of that statue is a "Derivative work", and you can't sell a photo of a statue you don't have a license to. (Personal photos are almost certainly "Fair Use", but oddly enough that is *not* a sure thing - used on a web page for instance).
As it turns out, even a personal photo is likely NOT fair use, unless the statue is not the prime focus of the statue. Taking a picture of the statue itself would be blatant infringement, a picture of your family in front of it would probably be fair use.
A copy of that statue is a licensed copy, and you can't sell a photo of that copy of the statue, without a license.
Technically, copies are made with permission, and that permission does not *necessarily* mean it is licensed. Otherwise, true.
An original $10,000 designer sofa is also copyrighted, a one of a kind object, and taking a photo of that is creating a derivative work, requiring a license or a "Fair Use" provision.
A mass produced copy of that sofa is a licensed use of that original copyrighted design, taking phot requires the same licensing or fair use rights that taking a photo of the original did.
An original, $1,000, ugly, sofa is *still* an original, copyrightable product, and making copies of in either photographic or mass produced form requires the *exact* *same* *rights*.
This would be arguable, under the utilitarian object rule I cited earlier. The distinctive patterns on a designer couch MIGHT qualify if the design can exist separate from the couch it's on. A plain couch pretty much fails to reach the standard of original work to pass this test.
And the banana's of course can't have photos taken of them either. Nor can they be painted - those genetically modified banana's are copyrighted.
In this case, you're wrong. I just peel off the sticker and I can take as many pictures of the bananna I want. There is no copyright on the shape, texture, or color of the bananna. Genetically modified doesn't matter, because a photograph does not record genetic information.
I can also paint it. I am not modifying any copyrighted material by painting a bannana.
In this, at least, CobraAI is correct for a variety of reasons. Most commercial bananas are not genetically engineered (yet) - the genetic issues are due to natural cloning methods, not genetic manipulation, so no one owns the rights to them at all. Also, even if they *were* protected by copyright, the owner of the rights needs to be able to prove he owns the rights on the object photographed. Unless the engineering leaves a distinctive mark on the peel, removing the sticker or simply taking the photo from an angle that doesn't show the sticker would prevent this. Finally, a banana by itself is unlikely to pass the utilitarian object test.
Bob the geneticist develops a retrovirus that produces a plague resitant banana. That Gene sequence he develops is simply a set of genetic commands for DNA, just as the code for Galactic Civilizations is a series of commands for the CPU - so I don't see that gene sequence being less protected than the code for Galciv II.
The output of the GalCiv code is just as protected as the code itself. Is the "Output" of Bob's code going to be less protected?
This is true, the owner of the rights to genetically modifications can own the output of the seeds containing it. In fact, in Monsanto Company v McFarling, the various levels of federal courts upheld the license agreement McFarling signed, which said he was not allowed to keep any of his harvest from one year to plant the next - he was contractually obligated to buy new seed, and violating the contract violated Monsanto's patents on the seeds in question.
http://www.cafc.uscourts.gov/opinions/05-1570.pdf
The Supreme Court upheld this decision without even bothering to hear arguments or make comment.
To preemptively address the points Jonnan is about to bring up - yes, he had a physical copy of the license to sign, so he at least had the possibility of actually reading it. By his actions he apparently DIDN'T read it, but he had the chance. So no, this has no direct bearing on whether notice of such a license would have been sufficient.
To my knowledge, he did not have a Monsanto rep there to explicitly explain the terms of the agreement when he signed.
While any farmer would qualify as a "merchant" in buying seed, as it would be part of their occupation, I do not believe the average farmer has any more or less knowledge of technology licensing agreements compared to the general public. It is not a primary skill involved in the job.
Did I miss anything?